Đề Cương Ôn Tập Cuối Học Kì 1 Tiếng Anh Lớp 10 Global Success (05.06.2024)

Trang Chủ

/

Đề Cương Ôn Tập Cuối Học Kì 1 Tiếng Anh Lớp 10 Global Success (05.06.2024)

Đề Cương Ôn Tập Cuối Học Kì 1 Tiếng Anh Lớp 10 Global Success (05.06.2024)

Thầy Thắng

ĐỀ CƯƠNG LỚP 10

15

Ngày đăng: 05-06-2024 14:57:30

Image

 

REVISION FOR THE FIRST TERM EXAM

Trường THPT Thái Phiên, TP Đà Nẵng, 2022 - 2023

 

SAMPLE TEST FOR UNIT 1 

 

I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions or do as directed. (6.5 points) 

LISTENING 

Part 1. Listen to the conversation between Paul and Andrea and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). (1.0 point)

 

Statements True False

True

False

1. Andrea can’t wait for her flight.

   

2. Paul is very excited about coming home.

   

3. Paul’s home is 280 kilometers from where they are now.

   

4. When Andrea's family get together, they often go out for dinner.

   

 

Part 2. You are going to hear a travel agent talking with a client who is planning her summer holiday. For each of the questions 5-8, choose the best answer A, B, or C. You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 points) 

5. She wants to go on holiday in ___________. 

A. two weeks’time. B. June. C. July. 

6. The woman doesn’t want to go on safari because ___________. 

A. the weather would be too hot. B. it would be too expensive.       C. her husband wouldn’t enjoy it.

7. When on holiday, all of the woman’s family enjoy ___________. 

A. going to restaurants. B. staying in the city. C. going to museums. 

8. Who went to Spain last year? 

A. the woman B. the woman’s husband C. the woman’s daughter 

LANGUAGE 

Choose the word that has a different stress pattern. ( 0.5 point ) 

Question 9. A. dangerous B. mischievous C. supportive D. special 

Question 10. A. family B. gratitude C. achievement D. solution 

Choose the best answer to each of the following questions or do as directed. (1.5 points) 

Question 11. Right now, Jim _______ the newspaper and Kathy _______ dinner. 

A. reads / has cooked B. is reading / is cooking         

C. has read / was cooking D. read / will be cooking 

Question 12. Every day I ______ up at 6 o'clock, ______ breakfast at 7 o'clock and ____ for work at 8 o'clock 

A. get / eat / leave B. have got / eating / leaving       C. got / ate / left D. will get / have eaten / left 

Question 13. You are old enough to take _______ for what you have done. 

A. responsible B. responsibility C. responsibly D. irresponsible 

Question 14. My wife handles most of the chores around house. She is a_____________. 

A. homemaker B. employer C. breadwinner D. assistant 

Question 15. My husband and I both go out to work so we share the _______. 

A. happiness B. household chores    C. responsibility D. employment 

Question 16. The meeting is very important and we are hoping everybody will attend it. 

A. continue    B. concern    C. enjoy    D. be present at 

READING 

Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions from 17 to 20. (1 point) 

Jean spent her first few years in Hooper and her family moved to Otsego early in her life. She was only ten when her father died unexpectedly, leaving her mother to raise and support their family alone. Her mother soon went to work outside the home to provide for the family, and Jean, being one of the oldest, had to help care for her younger siblings. Although she had much responsibility at home, Jean thoroughly enjoyed school and was an excellent student. She went on to graduate 10th in her class at Otsego High School in 1953. 

While still in high school, Jean met a young man named Charles "Chuck" Holly, at a dance in Alamo; and they were quite taken with each other. Over the next few years, their love for each other blossomed and they were married on February 24, 1953, while Jean was still in school. At the time, Chuck was serving his country in the military, and had come home on leave to marry his sweetheart. Unfortunately, shortly thereafter, he was sent overseas to serve in Korea for the next fifteen months. 

Upon his discharge, the couple settled into married life together in the Plainwell, Otsego area. To help make ends meet, Jean went to work at the collection bureau in Kalamazoo for a while, before taking a job at the cheese company in Otsego. In 1964, Chuck and Jean were overjoyed with the birth of their son, Chuck, who brought great joy into their lives. Jean remembered how her mother was always gone so much working after her father died and she did not want that for her son, so she left her job to devote herself to the role of a mother. 

Question 17. Before Jean's father passed away, her mother used to _______.

A. work outside the home B. be a housewife        

C. support the family alone D. work as a secretary 

Question 18. Which is not referred to Jean? 

A. She was a responsible girl.

B. She never helped her mother with household chores.

C. She often did well at school. '         

D. She went to high school. 

Question 19. Jean's husband was a _______. 

A. teacher B. dancer C. soldier D. servant 

Question 20. Jean _______. 

A. served in the military     B. lived in Korea for fifteen months 

C. had a daughter              D. got married when she was a student 

Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the blanks from 21 to 24. (1 point) 

There are many reasons (21) _____ taking regular time with our family is important: 

It creates a place to listen, teach, learn, and (22) _____ ourselves freely and safely. 

It provides (23) _____ to discuss family joys, issues, and problems. 

Family members can practice skills in a non-threatening atmosphere. 

Families are a basic part of our society and the fabric of our communities - we spend time together to get our feelings of belonging, our values, support and understanding. 

It helps keep family members together and feel safe in today's world where (24) ____ can lead to family disintegration 

Question 21. A. that   B. why   C. when   D. which 

Question 22. A. think   B. show   C. express   D. say 

Question 23. A. opportunities   B. conditions   C. situations   D. circumstances 

Question 24. A. push    B. press    C. pressure    D. pull 

WRITING 

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. (0.5 point) 

Question 25. Meal time also gives children a chance to learn how some of their favorite dishes making.  

Question 26. Playing games together is teachable moments to share lessons about sportsmanship, teamwork, perseverance, and to be tolerant of others.  

II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN 

A. Rewrite each of the sentences so that it is closest in meaning to the original one or do as directed. (0.5 point) 

Question 1. It is disappointing that we haven't heard from Molly.  

We are _________________________________

Question 2. Contacting her at work is usually quite easy.  

She is _________________________________

B. Write complete and meaningful sentences with the cues given (1.0 point): 

Question 1. In/ family, mother/ look after/ children/ supervise/ household tasks.  _______________________________________

Question 2. No one / see / Peter/ since / leave / school.  _______________________________________

 

---------The end----------

 

SAMPLE TEST FOR UNIT 2 

 

A. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM

 Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions or do as directed. (6.5 points)

LISTENING 

Part 1: Listen to Carlos asking information about the library and choose the correct option.

1. What must Carol take to the library? 

A student card B. A teacher’s letter C. A passport

2. Carlos will get: A. 2 library tickets B. 3 library tickets C. 4 library tickets 

3. On Saturdays, the library opens at: 

A. 10.30 am B. 11 am C. 2.30 pm 

4. The library is in: 

A. Murdoch Street B. Murdosh Street C. Murdock Street 

Part 2: A customer is describing a problem. Decide whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F). 

Statements 

True 

False 

5. They are in a Jewelry store 

   

6. The man bought a toy for his grandson 

   

7. The toy had a missing part 

   

8. The man cannot get his money back without a receipt

   

 

GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY 

Choose the word which has a different stress pattern from the others

9. A. awareness B. difference C. instrument D. character

10. A. reduce B. adopt C. damage D. protect

Choose the best answer to each of the following questions or do as directed

11. The river ______ by poisonous chemicals for a long time.

A. was polluted    B. polluted    C. pollutes    D. has been polluted 

12. Here ______ our bus. Hurry up! We______ it! 

A. came - missed      B. come – miss 

C. comes - are going to miss     D. will come - will miss 

13. In Singapore, people try to ____ 80% of all waste.

 A. reprocess    B. reclaim    C. recycle    D. reuse 

14. ___________car models always attract great attention at exhibitions.

 A. Eco – friendly B. Wealthy C. Passionate D. Portable

15. The most obvious advantage of living green is that it helps reduce ___________

 A. pollute    B. polluting    C. polluted    D. pollution 

16. Unlike acid rain or deforestation, global warming may not be visible. 

A. cultivation   B. afforestation    C. forestry    D. clear-cutting 

READING Choose the word or phrase among A, B, c or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage. 

The three Rs 

Rubbish, and how we choose to handle it, affects the environment and everything around US including the air, water, land, plants, and man-made things. We need a health; environment for our well-being, so we can (17) ________ why effective management of rubbish is important. Everyone needs to learn about and practise the three Rs - reduce, reuse, and recycle - to make our world safe and environmentally-friendly place. First, we must buy and use less and we should choose items with minimal packaging. Second, we should reuse things as much as possible and (18) ________ items on to others who can use them when they are no longer of (19) ________ to US. Finally, we should recycle everything once its usefulness is over so they can be made into new items. Making new items from recycled ones takes less energy and fewer resources than making products from brand-new materials. Just about anything that cannot be reused can be recycled into something (20) ________. You’d be amazed what can be done with a recycled product! A recycled plastic bottle can be made into hundreds of other plastics goods that can be used for many year

17. A. know B. understand C. say D. think

18. A. give B. pass C. deliver D. send

19. A. need B. help C. value D. use

20. A. other B. else C. another D. more 

Choose the letter A, B, C or D to answer these following questions 

Nature gave us all necessary resources to live and prosper. Now it is in danger and needs our help. What else we can do to protect environment? First of all this decisions must be made on governmental level and provide legal limitations for industries that emit a lot of greenhouse gases. We must unite together in order to protect the place we live in. People are an integral part of nature, we are dependent of it as we cannot imagine our life without nature. So why destroy environment and bite the hand that feeds you? We must stop deforestation and plant trees on cut down areas. Trees are natural filter of air that absorb carbon dioxide and produce oxygen. Cutting down trees we deprive animals of their natural environment and the soil begin to grow in erosion. Planting trees will save birds and other animals. 

We often make forced choices that are advertised on TV. Manufacturers try to rise their profits and sell more products. Sometimes we have so many unnecessary things we do not use. Imagine that you are moving your house, what are the necessary items you may need to live, only several bags. In reality the matter is opposite. There are a lot of things we do not use. People have to reconsider their views of life and promote healthy and ecologically friendly lifestyle. It is up to us to change situation for better and leave good legacy for generations to come

21. What is in danger and need our help?

 A. People B. Water C. Nature D. Weather

22. Why should we plant trees?

 A. To save animals B. To sell woods C. To deforest D. To prevent flood 

23.What do the writer take moving house as an example for?

A. We move house so many times. 

B. We have so many unnecessary things we do not use. 

C. We waste money so much. 

D. We use all the thing that we buy. 

24. What do people have to reconsider? 

A. their views of life    B. promote healthy lifestyle. 

C. promote ecologically friendly lifestyle.   D. all are correct 

WRITING 

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions

25. Many accidents is caused by careless driving

26. Look at the dark clouds. It will rain soon.

PHẦN TỰ LUẬN

A. Rewrite the following sentences using the guided initials/suggestion to make meaningful sentences. (0.5 point)

 1. We have collected waste for recycling in our school for more than ten years. (Use the Passive Voice)

  Waste ______________________________________

2. People only use these disposable knives and forks once. (Use the Passive Voice)  

These disposable ______________________________ 

B. Write complete and meaningful sentences with the cues given (1.0 point): 

1. I/ have/ class meeting/ 3 o’clock/ this afternoon.  ______________________________________

2. we / buy / eco-friendly products / when / go shopping / because they/ less harmful/ environment  

_____________________________________   

 

----------The end------------

 

SAMPLE TEST FOR UNIT 3

 

I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM 

Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions or do as directed. (6.5 points) 

LISTENING 

Part 1. Listen to the recording and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 points)

 

STATEMENTS 

T

F

Question 1. Toothpaste was invented about 1600 years ago.

   

Question 2. Ancient Greeks used some ingredients similar to those in modern toothpaste. 

   

Question 3. Umbrellas appeared in ancient sculptures of the Greeks and Persians.

   

Question 4. The umbrella was first used to protect people from the sun.

   

 

Part 2. Listen to Daniel and Hana talking about how much sleep they get and taking short naps and choose the correct answer A, B, C, or D to answer the questions below. You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 points) 

Question 5. Hana usually sleeps _______ a night. 

A. six hours B. seven hours C. eight hours D. nine hours 

Question 6. Daniel usually sleeps _______ Hana. 

A. the same as B. less than C. later than D. more than 

Question 7. On Sundays she _______ . 

A. sleeps a lot B. sees friends C. takes a nap D. does housework 

Question 8. On the weekend he _______. 

A. gets up early B. sleeps more C. takes naps D. gets up late 

LANGUAGE 

Choose the word that has a different stress pattern. ( 0.5 point ) 

Question 9. A. contest    B. talent    C. album     D. debate 

Question 10. A. broadcast    B. award    C. release    D. compose 

Choose the best answer to each of the following questions or do as directed.(1.5 points) 

Question 11. Hat Boi involves singing with distinctive vocal production techniques, symbolic gestures, ________ it is extremely difficult to perform ________ requires special training in the art form. 

A. and - but B. so - but C. so - and D. but - and 

Question 12. . I don’t mind ______ home but I’d rather ______ a taxi . 

A. to walk – get B. walking - to get C. walking – get D. to walk – getting 

Question 13. Indonesians really enjoy Dangdut, a kind of Indonesian popular music, because the ________ beat compels listeners to dance together in the Ghoomar style. 

A. power B. powerful C. powerless D. powerfully 

Question 14. Vietnam Idol, a music reality show, is becoming popular among young ________ who love to watch their generation on TV. 

A. spectators   B. singers    C. audiences    D. teenage 

Question 15. Vietnamese _______ music is extremely diverse, including Quan Ho, Dan Ca, Ca Tru, Chau Van and others. 

A. country   B. folk    C. traditional     D. gospel 

Question 16. Choose the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word. Judges travel all around America in search of the best singers. 

A. supporting   B. looking for   C. eliminating   D. going along with 

READING 

Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the blanks from 17 to 20. (1 point) 

Michael Jackson (born 1958) is truly a music legend. He became a superstar __________ (17) the age of eleven as a member of his family band The Jackson 5. His solo career earned him the title "King of Pop". His studio albums have all become classics. Jackson is equally ___________ (18) for his high energy and complicated dance techniques such as the Moonwalk. He died in 2009 at the age of 50. His awards and (19) __________ are proofs of the phenomenal success he __________ (20). He won World Music Award's Best-Selling Pop Male Artist of the Millennium, and was the American Music Award's Artist of the Century. 'Thriller' remains the best-selling album of all time. 'Vanity Fair' magazine named him the "Most popular artist in the history of show business". 

Question 17. A. in B. at C. on D. of 

Question 18. A. famous B. popular C. talented D. interested 

Question 19. A. rewards B. presents C. records D. results 

Question 20. A. created B. passed C. won D. achieved 

Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions from 21 to 24. (1 point) 

Adele has been one of the world's most well-known singers and songwriters in recent years. Born in North London in 1988, Adele started singing at a young age and she was mostly influenced by the Spice Girls. At the age of 16, Adele composed her first hit song, "Hometown Glory". When she was a student at the British School for Performing Arts and Technology, she recorded three songs for a class project. All these songs later were posted on MySpace.com and became very popular. As a result, she was offered a record deal from XL Recordings after her graduation. Her first album "19" debuted at number one on the British charts in 2008. 

In March 2008, she did a short tour in America and soon her international career began. In 2011, her second album, "21", came out. The music on this album was different from the soul music of "19". It was influenced by American country music, which Adele was listening to during her tour. In 2012, she wrote and recorded "Skyfall" for the James Bond film of the same name. The song sold more than two million copies worldwide and for it Adele won the Academy Award for Best Original Song. Since 2012, Adele has won many more awards. She has many fans including other famous singers because they admire her unique voice and her passion for music. 

(Adapted from "Adele" by Learning Resource Network, 2016) 

Question 21. Adele's first song __________. 

A. was recorded at her art school B. was influenced by the Spice Girls' music 

C. was written when she was a teenager D. was written for her class project 

Question 22. The second paragraph is mainly about __________. 

A. the songs Adele wrote for XL Recordings 

B. what Adele did when she was a student 

C. how Adele made her songs popular 

D. how Adele began her professional music career 

Question 23. After Adele graduated from her art school, __________. 

A. she posted her songs on MySpace B. she started singing and writing songs 

C. she got a contract with a recording label D. she started her career in America 

Question 24. The word "came out" in paragraph 2 can be replaced by __________. A. was composed B. was released C. was offered D. was recorded 

WRITING 

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. (0.5 point) 

Question 25. He has a nice voice, and he is a talent musician. 

Question 26. My Tam made her fans to feel surprised when she was given the title of “Asia’s Music Legend” in 2014. 

II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN WRITING 

A. Rewrite each of the sentences so that it is closest in meaning to the original one or do as directed. (0 .5 point) 

Question 1. You can buy the tickets online. You can buy them at the stadium ticket office. ( Combine the sentences, using one of the conjunctions : and / but / so / or

_____________________________________________ 

Question 2. We can’t possibly work in this noise. ( Rewrite the sentence with “ to” )  

It’s ______________________________________

B. Write complete and meaningful sentences with the cues given (1.0 point): 

Question 1. I /not enjoy/ performance/ because/ I/ not identify / main characters.  ____________________________________________ 

Question 2. mother / made / stay / bed / when / sick.  

____________________________________________ 

 

------------THE END---------- 

 

SAMPLE TEST FOR UNIT 4

I. PHẦN TRẮC NGHIỆM

LISTENING

Part 1. You will hear the conversation between a man, Stan and his wife, Julie deciding where to

spend their next holiday . Decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point)

Statements 

T

F

Question 1: Julie thinks that holidays on cruise ships are reasonably priced.

   

Question 2: Stan and Julie would like to return to some countries they have already

visited.

   

Question 3: Julie feels that Canada is too far away for them to visit.

   

Question 4: Stan and Julie prefer to spend more time sightseeing and less time sailing.

   

 

Part 2. You will listen to Jan talking to Steve about getting a student card. Listen and choose the correct option A, B, C, or D to complete each of the following questions from 5 to 8. You will hear the recording twice. (1.0 point)

Question 5: How much is the travel card?

A. 16. B. 6. C. 60. D. 1.6.

Question 6: Jan will need ?

A. one photo. B. two photos. C. three photos. D. four photos

Question 7: Photos are less expensive ?

A. in the photographer’s shop. B. in the library.

C. in the post office. D. at the school

Question 8: Jan can get a travel card from ?

A. her college. B. the travel agency. C. the tourist office. D. the reception

LANGUAGE

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions (0.5 point).

Question 9: A. voluntary B. experienced C. available D. unfortunate

Question 10: A. parent B. visit C. answer D. support

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the

following questions (1.5 points).

Question 11: His teacher made him _______ for bad behaviour.

A. apologizes B. apologize C. to apologize D. have apologized

Question 12: She told us her life story while we_______ her tidy the house .

A. are giving    B. have helped    C. were helping      D. help

Question 13: Besides _______ money, there are other things you can do to help people in need.

A. to donate     B. donation     C. donating      D. donors

Question 14: The money ______ from selling handmade items is use to build a local center for orphans and homeless old people.

A. collected     B. improved     C. volunteered      D. contacted

Question 15: One of benefits of volunteering activities is that teenagers can gain______ .

A. life experiences B. similar interests C. job announcement D. letter of application

Question 16: The school is difficult to get because it is located in a remote area.

A.be willing to give freely B. far away from places where other people live

C. several different D. to be better position

READING

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the blanks from 17 to 20.(1.0point).

Volunteering can make you happier and help you live (17) ______, according to a new study. A research paper published on Friday in the journal BMC Public Health says doing good deeds for others (18) ______ your mental health and increases your longevity. Researchers from the UK's University of Exeter reviewed 40 academic papers into the effects of volunteerism (19 ) ______ our health. They found that volunteers had lower rates of depression, an increased sense of well-being, and a 22 per cent reduction in the chances of dying within the next seven years. (20)______ lead the way in volunteering, with an estimated 36 per cent of the population lending a hand.

Question 17: A. length B. lengthen C. longer D. to lengthen

Question 18: A. boosts B. rises C. helps D. saves

Question 19: A. with B. about C. on D. off

Question 20: A. Australia B. the Australia C. A Australian D. Australians

Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on the answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 21 to 24 (1.0 point).

The American Red Cross was established in 1881, largely through the efforts of Clara Barton, who had done relief work during the Civil War. In 1900, the society was approved by the Congress, and since then it has developed until each country in the United States and its possessions is served by a Red Cross chapter . The American Red Cross performs a great variety of services. In times of war, its biggest task is to give help and comfort to men and women in the international armed forced, whether they are sick or well, and to assist their families back home if they need help. Even in peacetime, Red Cross members work with these forces whenever they may be of help.

The Canadian Red Cross Society was founded in 1896 as the first branch of the British Red Cross Society.

Since 1927, however, it has been an independent national organization. Almost every activity of the American Red Cross is carried on similarly by the Canadian one, and it served effectively in both world wars as well as in Korea. Nevertheless, the Canadian society has some projects that are unique. Because the country is so large and many areas are so thinly populated, the Canadian Red Cross provides outpost hospitals, nursing stations, veterans’ lodges, and traveling medical and dental clinics.

The programs of the American and Canadian Red Cross societies are dedicated to helping people at home and abroad in times of peace and war. Both societies have millions of members. Membership dues and voluntary contributions support the organizations and pay for their services. Despite the close relationships to their governments, neither society receives money from any governmental funds .

Question 21.The American Red Cross was established chiefly by ____________.

A. the American government    B. an American woman

C. the American congress     D. an American society

Question 22. The word chapter in the first paragraph most probably means ____________ .

A. a number division of a long fiction work 

B. an independent unit or lesson in a textbook

C. a certain glorious period of time in history 

D. an authorized section of a bigger organization

Question 23. The American Red Cross members take care of the national armed forces ____________.

A.in times of war only      B. whenever they may be of help

C.in times of peace only  D. both in war or peace times

Question 24.Which of the following is NOT included in the Canadian Red Cross Society’s unique projects?

A. outpost hospitals     B. nursing stations

C. veteran’s pensions  D. medical and dental clinics

WRITING

Choose the incorrect part indicated by the letter A, B, C or D that needs correcting in the following sentences(0.5 point).

Question 25: Orphans in Kenya are extremely disadvantageous and encounter a lot of painful experiences in their life

A. Orphans    B. disadvantageous    C. painful    D their

Question 26: It's three years ago he started learning German.

A. It’s     B. ago    C. started    D. learning

II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN

A. Rewrite each of the sentences so that it is closest in meaning to the original one or do as directed.(0,5 point)

Question 1: I met a friend from childhood. I volunteered in my community. (Combine the sentences using “while”)

While ___________________________________

Question 2: It won’t be difficult to get a ticket for the game.

You won’t have _________________________________

B. Write complete and meaningful sentences with the cues given (1.0 point):

Question 3 : I/ writing/ apply/ volunteer position/ local bank.

_____________________________________

Question 4: Members/ volunteer clubs/ excited/ raise /money/ charity.

_____________________________________

 

---------The end---------
 

SAMPLE TEST FOR UNIT 5 

LISTENING 

Part 1. Listen to the recording and decide whether the statements are true (T) or false (F). Put a tick () in the correct box. You will hear the recording twice (1.0 point). 

Statements 

T

Question 1. The customers want two tables

   

Question 2. The two customers order the same starter.

   

Question 3. Both customers order the Thai chicken for their main course.

   

Question 4. The customers order soft drinks. 

   

 

Part 2. Listen to some information about volunteering. Circle the best answer A, B,C or D. You will listen TWICE. (1.0 point). 

Question 5. What is Green Help? 

A. An application B. An event C. An organization D. An orphan 

Question 6. What was Edward doing when he came up with the idea of GreenHelp? 

A. He was volunteering to plant trees. B. He was organizing a volunteering event. 

C. He was studying. D. He was helping children organize after-school activities. 

Question 7. GreenHelp was initially created by ____________. 

A. 3 people B.10 people C.15 people D. 13 people 

Question 8. What is true about GreenHelp? 

A. It’s connected with big organisations. B. It currently has more than 10,000 volunteering activities. 

C. It encourages more people to volunteer. D. GreenHelp isn’t like a social network for volunteers.  

LANGUAGE 

Choose the word that has a different stress pattern. ( 0.5 point ) 

Question 9. A. invention B. Internet C. benefit D. telephone 

Question 10. A. advantage B. computer C. century D. attention 

Choose the best answer to each of the following questions or do as directed. (2.0 points) 

Question 11. YouTube_________to become the world most popular video-sharing website since 2005. 

A. has grown B. have grown C. grew D. grows 

Question 12. I have lost my mobile phone. Someone_________it. 

A. has steal B. has stolen C. has stole D. have stole 

Question 13. Thomas Edison, Benjamin Franklin and James Watt are among of the greatest_________of all time. 

A. inventions B. inventiveness C. inventors D. invents 

Question 14. _________ cars can drive themselves with little human control. 

A. Smart B. Driverless C. Driven D. Non-driver 

Question 15. You should _________ the battery fully before using your smartphone. 

A. apply B. display C. store D. charge 

Question 16. Choose the word CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word. 

You can use a USB stick to transport files from one computer to another. 

A. delete   B. display   C. transfer   D. store 

READING 

Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each of the blanks from 17 to 20. (1 point) 

An e-reader is a small (17)___ on which you can store and read texts downloaded from the Internet. Compared with printed books, e-readers are often more convenient because an e-reader allows us(18)______ to store thousands of books while It is only as heavy as a single book. Besides, it has a lot of useful features that a printed book does not have. The first e-reader was introduced by a small company in 1999. However, it was not until people became interested in e-books that e-readers became (19)_____ around the world. In 2007, Amazon created Kindle, a famous e-reader which has been widely used since then. (20)____ e- readers have become less popular since tablets and smartphones were introduced, they are still used by many book lovers today. 

Question 17. A. device B. hardware C. software D. vehicle 

Question 18. A. storing B. store C. stored D. to store 

Question 19. A. convenient B. popular C. helpful D. cheap 

Question 20. A. Because B. Although C. When D. Until 

Read the following passage and choose the best answer to each of the questions from 21 to 24. (1 point) 

When the era of digital technology has bloomed all over the world, human beings have witnessed thousands of wonderful inventions which can be applied in a variety of fields. Among those, robots are considered as a brilliant human creativity and have been developed further to serve people. Shaped into human bodies, robots are machines built to do tasks. Normally, they can be controlled by built-in computers so that they can do a series of automatic actions. These human-like machines help us explore new places, and uncover the mystery of the deep and cold ocean which is very dangerous for a normal body. They seem to play an unlimited role not only in exploration, but in medical fields as well. In hospitals, they can do a wide range of jobs in cooperation with doctors to improve the health care system. For instance, robots can assist physicians remotely to check on patients and even inspect them. They can search around hospitals to collect information about the sick and transmit it to the doctors through a screen to help them interact efficiently. With cutting-edge technology they can even do an operation with a high level of accuracy under professionals’ control. Thanks to robotic assistants, medical workers can save time and save many lives from fatal diseases. It is believed that the number of robots applied in the medical industry will be expected to increase dramatically over the next few years. 

Question 21. What is the passage mainly about? 

A. The history of the robot invention. B. The robots used in medical centres. 

C. The various applications of robots. D. How convenient a doctor can control a robot. 

Question 22. The word cutting-edge in line 11 is closest in meaning to_________. 

A. most precise B. sharpest C. most advanced D. out of date 

Question 23. In the field of science, a robot can assist scientists in _________. 

A. preventing the sea level rise 

B. controlling the extreme weather events on the ocean 

C. looking for mysterious creatures under the sea 

D. handling the life-threatening tasks of investigating marine life 

Question 24. According to the text, in hospitals robot can _________. 

A. check on patients and send information to the doctors 

B. perform an operation by themselves 

C. take care of the patients and interact with the doctors 

D. suggest an operation plan on patients 

WRITING 

Choose the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction. (0.5 point) 

Question 25. Since the Internet was first created in the 1960s, it changed people’s lives a lot

Question 26. My brother has bought this computer since he was 15. 

II. PHẦN TỰ LUẬN 

A. Rewrite each of the sentences so that it is closest in meaning to the original one or do as directed.(0.5 point) 

Question 1. The robbers made the bank manager hand over the money. ( Change the sentence into the passive voice)  

___________________________________ 

Question 2. My lawyer said I shouldn’t say anything to the police. 

My lawyer advised me ________________________________ 

B. Write complete and meaningful sentences with the cues given (1.0 point): 

Question 1. Chopin / consider / be / one of / greatest Romantic piano composers / 19th century.  

____________________________________ 

Question 2. my family / my father always / take charge / do / heavy lifting.  ____________________________________ 


-----THE END-----

 

Giải đáp mọi thắc mắc trong đề - mua bản word và đáp án vui lòng liên hệ Zalo: 034 8371 758

Theo dõi fanpage để cập nhật nhanh các bài tập và đề kiểm tra mới nhất.

https://www.facebook.com/profile.php?id=61555984765050

 

Bài Viết Liên Quan

Bài Đăng Gần Đây

logo

Chào mừng bạn đến với Tiếng Anh Thầy Thắng nơi sự sáng tạo và học tập gặp nhau.

Chương trình học tập thường được thiết kế linh hoạt từ việc củng cố kiến thức cơ bản đến việc phát triển kỹ năng ngôn ngữ và giao tiếp.

Liên Hệ

Địa Chỉ

TP Đà Nẵng

Email

thang.phanlucky@gmail.com

Điện Thoại

034 8371 758

Fanpage

© Tiếng Anh Thầy Thắng 2024. All Rights Reserved.